View Full Version : Did Jesus Reject Gentiles?
Newscaster
11-09-2007, 10:05 PM
How do you guys interpret these two itens from the NT?
Jesus told his followers that they were to teach the word of God only to the chosen few: "Go not into the way of the Gentiles....but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matthew 10:7)
St. Paul tells the Ephesians, "So I tell you this, and insist on it in the Lord, that you must no longer live as the Gentiles do, in the futility of their thinking. They are darkened in their understanding and separated from the life of God because of the ignorance that is in them due to the hardening of their hearts. (Ephesians 4:17-18)
Buck Laser
11-09-2007, 10:15 PM
The conflict between Jewish and Gentile Christians is evident throughout the NT. Jesus's quoted sayings and Paul's writings speak to both sides of the issue. I'd say the Gentile Christians more or less won that conflict.
How do you guys interpret these two itens from the NT?
Jesus told his followers that they were to teach the word of God only to the chosen few: "Go not into the way of the Gentiles....but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matthew 10:7)
No. Jesus first commission and first responsibility was to the Jews as they were the nation that God had a covenant with by means of his promise to Abraham. Later they were commissioned to preach to Gentiles (or people of the nations) and were even granted with the ability to speak in other languages (Acts 2:3,4) because now they were going to preach to men of every sort. Finally Acts 13:46 makes it clear that Gentiles would be welcomed because the Jews had rejected Christ, "...It was necessary for the word of God to be spoken first to you. (Jews) Since you are thrusting it away from you and do noto judge yourselves worthy of everlasting life, look! We turn to the nations. (Gentiles)"
St. Paul tells the Ephesians, "So I tell you this, and insist on it in the Lord, that you must no longer live as the Gentiles do, in the futility of their thinking. They are darkened in their understanding and separated from the life of God because of the ignorance that is in them due to the hardening of their hearts. (Ephesians 4:17-18)
Here you are quoting a scripture from Paul and who was talking to Christians (who could also be called Gentiles at one time) and was telling them to stay away from those who had not accepted Christianity.
Also remember the Ethopian eunuch in Acts 8th chapter got baptized and was not a Jew and finally Galations 3:8,9 makes the answer to your question very clear. It says "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have put on CHrist. There is neither Jew nor Greek there is neither slave nor freeman, there is neither male nor female, for you are all one person in union with Christ Jesus. Moreover, if you belong to Christ, you are really Abraham's seed, heirs with a promise."
Jesus did not reject the Gentiles who became Christians but the book of Ephesians shows that he does reject Gentiles who are not Christians. To be a 'seed of Abraham' requires acknowledgement that Christ was the Son of God and that is open to anyone, male or female, black or white, Jew or Greek.
BoogyMan
11-09-2007, 10:55 PM
There was a time when the gospel was not preached to the gentiles as it was to go to the Jews first and then elsewhere.
For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
We have Acts chapter 10 that details the account of the first gentile converts showing that the gospel was delivered to the gentiles.
In Acts chapter 11 Peter makes explanation of the fact that God sent him to the gentiles and that they should be accepted.
Specifically Acts chapter 11 and verse 18 wraps up the point.
When they heard these things, they held their peace, and glorified God, saying, Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.
jafar00
11-10-2007, 06:57 AM
How do you guys interpret these two itens from the NT?
Jesus told his followers that they were to teach the word of God only to the chosen few: "Go not into the way of the Gentiles....but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matthew 10:7)
St. Paul tells the Ephesians, "So I tell you this, and insist on it in the Lord, that you must no longer live as the Gentiles do, in the futility of their thinking. They are darkened in their understanding and separated from the life of God because of the ignorance that is in them due to the hardening of their hearts. (Ephesians 4:17-18)
What is the original language those passages were written in. Is the word "gentiles" actually used? Or is it simply the product of the translator's interpretation. This is an important point to consider when reading translated interpretations of any religious text.
Newscaster
11-10-2007, 07:00 AM
The NT original versions were in Greek. Aremaic was not used.
Gentiles at first applied to non Jews.
Later it applied to non Christians, which makes sense if Jesus preached conversion to Christianity. There are mentions in the scripturs of "Gentile Christians" making it clear that some Christians were not of the Jewish nationality/religion at first but were 'of the nations' and then became Christians.
At any rate, the answer to the question is NO Jesus did not reject the Gentiles which I'm sure some non Bible believers would love to prove and then try to make Christians feel silly for believing in Jesus since he supposedly rejected us.
I'm sure they'll think of something else pretty soon.
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